The
CBSE UGC NET Examination held on 10th July, 2016 was re-conducted in certain
centres on 28th August, 2016. It is to be noted that the UGC NET exam of 2016
June and 2016 December was not organized. The UGC NET Examination Question
Paper-1 of 28th August, 2016, Test Booklet Code A along with answer keys are
given below. The answer keys are as per the answer keys released by UGC.
1.
In a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for showing scheme of
Chapterisation?
(A)
Survey of related studies, Introduction, Design of the study, Data-Analysis and
interpretation, Conclusions and generalisations, suggested further study,
References,
Appendix
(B)
Introduction, Design of study, Data Analysis and Interpretation,
Generalizations, Conclusions and Survey of related studies and suggestions for
further research, References and Appendix
(C)
Introduction, Survey of related studies, Design of study, Data-presentation;
analysis & Interpretation, Formulation of generalization & Conclusions,
Suggestions for further research, References & Appendix
(D)
Survey of related studies, References, Introduction, Design of study, Data
analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalizations, Suggestions for further
research, Appendix
Answer: (C)
2.
Which of the following is not the critical feature of qualitative research?
(A)
Actual settings are the direct source of data.
(B)
Data take the forms of words or pictures.
(C)
Seeking to establish relationships among measured social facts.
(D)
Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past related to the phenomena.
Answer: (C)
3.
A detailed description of methodology of research is required in
(A)
Thesis/Dissertation
(B)
Symposium/Workshop
(C)
Seminar paper/Articles
(D)
Conference and Seminar Papers
Answer: (A)
4.
Research ethics has a direct connection more often with which stages of
research?
(A)
Defining and delimiting the scope of research.
(B)
Problem formulation and reporting of research findings.
(C)
Defining the population and deciding the sampling technique for research.
(D)
Deciding about statistical techniques and data analysis.
Answer: (B)
Read
the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :
Many aspects of the motion-picture
industry and its constituent companies are dissimilar to those observable in
advanced-technology industries and firms. For instance, company longevity does
not represent a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In
the advanced-technology company for example, one new-product innovation – which
is expected to generate financial returns to the firm – is insufficient for the
company to be successful.
Rather, a stream of new product
innovations is required. By contrast with the independent production company of
this case, each new film – which is expected to generate financial returns to
the principals – is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any subsequent
new films involving the firm’s participants will be produced by a different
independent company.
As another instance, people’s learning
is expected to have different contributors and beneficiaries across the two
organizational contexts. In the advanced-technology company, for example, each
new product innovation provides an opportunity for participants on the project team
to learn and acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain such
participants, hence, benefit from their increased experience on the next
project. By contrast with the independent production company, each new film
provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and
acquire this experience also, but this same company has little or no expectation
of retaining such participants, and hence, benefitting from their increased experience
in the next project.
Experience is paramount in the
motion-picture industry. Generally, on film projects, budgets are very tight,
and schedules are very demanding. People are hired largely based on their
experience and are expected to perform well immediately when called to do so.
There is negligible slack time or margin for learning through trial and error,
but experienced people learn exactly through trial and error. Because
experience is valued so highly and film-production houses have such short time
horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult for most people. Further,
the role played by schools and colleges is minimal in this industry. Some
skills and techniques can be learned and refined through formal education
(e.g., acting schools, theatre, film degrees), but the majority come through
direct experience. Mentoring plays an important role. True, the film business
focuses heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of the industry
as a whole is critically dependent upon learning and exploration overtime.
Answer
the following questions:
5.
What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts?
(A)
Dissimilarity
(B)
Product package
(C)
Financial return
(D)
Company longevity
Answer: (D)
6.
What will be sufficient for an independent production company to be successful?
(A)
New product innovations
(B)
Financial returns from each new film
(C)
Active role by firm’s participants
(D)
Organisational context
Answer: (B)
7.
What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of
its participants?
(A)
Benefit for the next project
(B)
Opportunity for more learning
(C)
Little expectation of retaining them
(D)
Help in marketing the previous product
Answer: (A)
8.
What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of
its participants?
(A)
Absence from the next project.
(B)
Retention for the next project.
(C)
Participation in the current project.
(D)
Use of opportunity to acquire experience.
Answer: (B)
9.
Why do film production houses value experience highly?
(A)
Because of the importance of trial and error methods.
(B)
Because of the margin for learning.
(C)
Because of short time horizons.
(D)
Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.
Answer: (C)
10.
According to the author, what has been the focus of film business?
(A)
Formal education
(B)
Mentoring
(C)
Exploitation
(D)
Indirect experience
Answer: (C)
11.
Internal and external factors that affect message reception by the students in
the classroom are referred to as
(A)
Feedback
(B)
Fragmentation
(C)
Channelization
(D)
Noise
Answer: (D)
12.
A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over
(A)
The self, selected methods of communication and the message.
(B)
The audience, the noise and the reception.
(C)
The feedback, the technology and the audience experience.
(D)
The communication channel, other communicators, and external factors.
Answer: (A)
13.
What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation?
(A)
Inspiration, controversy and introspection
(B)
Diversion, criticism and irrationality
(C)
Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance
(D)
Power, structure and tradition
Answer: (D)
14.
As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your
(A)
Audience emotions
(B)
Silent cues
(C)
Artful pauses
(D)
Counter arguments
Answer: (C)
15.
Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a classroom from the following:
(A)
Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement
(B)
Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics
(C)
High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance
(D)
Facial expression, kinesics and personal space
Answer: (D)
16.
Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening?
(A)
Opinionation, stare and glare and interruptions
(B)
Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement
(C)
Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice
(D)
Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended questions
Answer: (D)
17.
In a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI. The code of BIOLOGICALS will
be
(A)
BLICOALIOSG
(B)
BOLGICAILOS
(C)
SBLAOILOBCG
(D)
BSILOALCOIG
Answer: (D)
18.
In the series 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ……. the next term is
(A)
59
(B)
63
(C)
61
(D)
68
Answer: (C)
19.
At present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5 years, the sum of
their ages will be 70 years. The age of the mother after 10 years will be
(A)
40
(B)
55
(C)
45
(D)
60
Answer: (B)
20.
In the series AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? the next term is
(A)
GLK
(B)
HLM
(C)
LHM
(D)
KGL
Answer: (D)
21.
C and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and brother of D. B is
related to C as
(A)
Brother
(B)
Son
(C)
Uncle
(D)
Father-in-law
Answer: (C)
22.
Anil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the runs was found to be
80. After playing four more matches, the mean of the runs of all the matches
was found to be 70. The total runs made in the last four matches is
(A)
400
(B)
300
(C)
200
(D)
100
Answer: (C)
23.
If two propositions are connected in such a way that they cannot both be false
although they may both be true, then their relationship is called
(A)
Contrary
(B)
Subcontrary
(C)
Contradictory
(D)
Subalternation
Answer: (B)
24.
Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a deductive type of
argument?
(A)
The conclusion follows from the premise/premises necessarily.
(B)
The argument admits degree of complexity.
(C)
The argument provides us knowledge about matters of fact.
(D)
The argument must be either valid or invalid.
Answer: (C)
25.
Select the code which states the condition of an invalid deductive argument:
(A)
All the premises are true but the conclusion is false.
(B)
Some of the premises are true but the conclusion is false.
(C)
All the premises are false and the conclusion is also false.
(D)
All the premises are true and the conclusion is also true.
Answer: (A)
26.
Given below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn from them (taking
singly or together); which conclusions are validly drawn? Select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
Premises:
(i)
All bats are mammals.
(ii)
Birds are not bats.
Conclusions:
(a)
Birds are not mammals.
(b)
Bats are not birds.
(c)
All mammals are bats.
(d)
Some mammals are bats.
Codes:
(A)
(a), (b) and (d)
(B)
(b) and (d)
(C)
(a) and (c)
(D)
(b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (B)
27.
When a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum to mean what is
meant by the definiens it is called
(A)
Lexical definition
(B)
Stipulative definition
(C)
Precising definition
(D)
Persuasive definition
Answer: (B)
28.
Select the code which is not correct:
An
analogical argument is strengthened by
(A)
Increasing the number of entities.
(B)
Increasing the number of similar respects.
(C)
Reducing the claim made earlier stronger.
(D)
Making the conclusion stronger when premises remain unchanged.
Answer: (D)
Consider the following two tables (I and
II) that show the percentage of students in each faculty at University and the
number of foreign students in the Science faculty. These percentages have been
rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the
science faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that
follow (Questions 29 – 31):
I:
Students Faculty wise
Name of Faculty
|
% of Students
|
Computing
|
22
|
Business
|
14
|
Science
|
23
|
Engineering
|
9
|
Arts
|
21
|
Medicine
|
5
|
Law
|
6
|
II
: Foreign Students in Science Faculty
Foreign Students
|
Number of Science Students
|
American
|
79
|
Australian
|
4
|
African
|
2
|
Chinese
|
6
|
European
|
21
|
29.
Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty is that of
foreign students?
(A)
14%
(B)
9%
(C)
30%
(D)
11%
Answer: (D)
30.
Approximately, how many students belong to the Engineering faculty?
(A)
420
(B)
410
(C)
390
(D)
400
Answer: (B)
31.
In case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately, what is
their percentage in the medicine faculty?
(A)
13%
(B)
18%
(C)
12%
(D)
15%
Answer: (D)
A
college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class MCA-III and
remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and class MCA-II. The
proportion of female students and the proportion of vegetarian students in the
college are indicated as under through the table.
Answer
questions 32 to 34 based on this information.
Proportion of females and proportion of
vegetarians in each class
Class
|
Female (F)
|
Vegetarian (V)
|
MCA-I
|
0.40
|
|
MCA-II
|
0.45
|
0.50
|
MCA-III
|
0.55
|
|
Total
|
0.525
|
0.53
|
For
example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female students
and 0.53 is the total proportion of vegetarian students in the college.
32.
What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III?
(A)
40
(B)
45
(C)
50
(D)
55
Answer: (D)
33.
What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCA-I?
(A)
40
(B)
45
(C)
50
(D)
55
Answer: (A)
34.
How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and class
MCA-II?
(A)
72
(B)
88
(C)
78
(D)
92
Answer: (B)
35.
Which of the following statements regarding the features of Information and
Communication
Technology (ICT) is/are true?
I.
ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks and the applications
based on them.
II.
ICT supports the spread of information and knowledge, separating the content
from the place where it belongs physically.
III.
The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the expenditure
for them to be maximized.
Codes:
(A)
I and II only
(B)
I and III only
(C)
II and III only
(D)
I, II and III
Answer: (A)
36.
If one GigaByte is equal to 230 Bytes of data storage, then 1024
TeraBytes is equal to _____ bits of data storage.
(A)
250
(B)
253
(C)
240
(D)
256
Answer: (B)
37.
The software used to navigate through the web is known as
(A)
Website
(B)
Web Browser
(C)
Internet
(D)
World Wide Web
Answer: (B)
38.
With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc: mean?
(A)
Blind Computer Communication: - The users specified in the Bcc: field will get
the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.
(B)
Blind Carbon Copy: - The users specified in the Bcc: field will get the e-mail
and see the addresses in the to: and cc: fields.
(C)
Blind Computer Communication:- The users specified in the Bcc : field will get
the e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how blind people get
e-mail.
(D)
Blind Carbon Copy: The users specified in the Bcc: field will get the e-mail
but will not see the addresses in the to: and cc: fields.
Answer: (B)
39.
Random Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer storage, is a ______ memory.
(A)
Non-volatile
(B)
Volatile
(C)
Permanent
(D)
Secondary
Answer: (B)
40.
In Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless protocol as servers
do not maintain any information about past client requests. HTTP is an acronym
for
(A)
Hyper Text Translation Protocol
(B)
Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(C)
High TeraByte Transfer Protocol
(D)
Hypervisor Test Translation Protocol
Answer: (B)
41.
The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due
to
(A)
Industrial waste
(B)
Thermal power plants
(C)
Natural sources
(D)
Agricultural practices
Answer: (C)
42.
Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well
as climate?
(A)
Soot
(B)
Sulphur dioxide
(C)
Oxides of nitrogen
(D)
Chlorofluoro carbons
Answer: (A)
43.
Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to
resolve.
Reason
(R): Our understanding how environment works and how different human choices
affect environment is inadequate.
Choose
the correct code:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true and (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
44.
The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total
electric power generation from all renewable energy sources sought to be
achieved by Indian government by the year 2022, is
(A)
~ 57.1%
(B)
~ 65.5%
(C)
~ 47.5%
(D)
~ 75%
Answer: (A)
45.
As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government
through additional forest and tree cover has resolved to create an additional
carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent
of
(A)
3.5 to 4 billion tons
(B)
2.5 to 3 billion tons
(C)
1.5 to 2 billion tons
(D)
1 to 1.5 billion tons
Answer: (B)
46.
Which of the following is a meteorological hazard?
(A)
Avalanche
(B)
Coastal erosion
(C)
Landslide
(D)
Blizzard
Answer: (D)
47.
Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India
Rankings 2016?
(A)
Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi
(B)
Central University, Hyderabad
(C)
Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore
(D)
Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai
Answer: (C)
48.
Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India?
(a)
It supplements formal education.
(b)
It reduces the cost of education.
(c)
It replaces the formal education.
(d)
It enhances access to education.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
(B)
(a), (c) and (d)
(C)
(a), (b) and (d)
(D)
(b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C)
49.
Which of the following are statutory bodies?
(a)
Election Commission of India
(b)
University Grants Commission (UGC)
(c)
All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
(d)
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)
(a), (b) and (c)
(B)
(b), (c) and (d)
(C)
(b) and (c)
(D)
(b) and (d)
Answer: (C)
50.
Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?
(a)
It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.
(b)
It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
(c)
It can amend a money bill.
(d)
It can be dissolved during emergency.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)
(b) and (c)
(B)
(b), (c) and (d)
(C)
(a), (b) and (c)
(D)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (D)
51.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the
Governor of a State?
(a)
He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
(b)
He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.
(c)
He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
(d)
He has diplomatic powers.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)
(a) only
(B)
(a) and (b)
(C)
(a), (b) and (d)
(D)
(a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (A)
52.
In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the
other party) must be followed?
(a)
Dismissal of an employee
(b)
Supersession of a municipality
(c)
Threat to national security
(d)
Disciplinary action against a student or an employee
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)
(a) and (b)
(B)
(a) and (d)
(C)
(a), (b) and (d)
(D)
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C)
53.
Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic characteristics of
teaching?
Select
the correct alternative from the codes:
(i)
Teaching is the same as training.
(ii)
There is no difference between instruction and conditioning when we teach.
(iii)
Teaching is related to learning.
(iv)
Teaching is a ‘task’ word while learning is an ‘achievement’ word.
(v)
Teaching means giving information.
(vi)
One may teach without learning taking place.
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(B)
(iii), (iv) and (vi)
(C)
(ii), (iii) and (v)
(D)
(i), (iv) and (vi)
Answer: (B)
54.
Which of the following factors affect teaching?
Choose
the correct code to indicate your answer.
(i)
Teacher’s internal locus of control.
(ii)
Learner-motivation.
(iii)
Teacher’s biographical data.
(iv)
Teacher’s self efficacy.
(v)
Learner’s interest in co-curricular activities.
(vi)
Teacher’s skill in managing and monitoring.
(vii)
Teacher’s knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii)
(B)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(C)
(iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii)
(D)
(ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (A)
55.
Which combination of methods of teaching is likely to optimise learning?
(A)
Lecturing, discussions and seminar method
(B)
Interactive discussions, planned lectures and PowerPoint based presentations
(C)
Interactive lecture sessions followed by buzz sessions, brainstorming and
projects
(D)
Lecturing, demonstrations and PowerPoint based presentations
Answer: (C)
56.
Assertion (A): Teaching aids have to be considered as effective supplements to
instruction.
Reason
(R): They keep the students in good humour.
Choose
the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
57.
The purpose of formative evaluation is to
(A)
Grade students’ learning outcomes.
(B)
Accelerate students’ learning performance.
(C)
Check students’ performance graph.
(D)
Provide feedback to teacher effectiveness.
Answer: (B)
58.
Which of the following learner characteristics are likely to influence the
effectiveness of teaching aids and evaluation systems to ensure positive
results?
(A)
Learner’s family background, age and habitation.
(B)
Learner’s parentage, socio-economic background and performance in learning of
the concerned subject.
(C)
Learner’s stage of development, social background and personal interests.
(D)
Learner’s maturity level, academic performance level and motivational
dispositions.
Answer: (D)
59.
For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is
(A)
Consulting an authority
(B)
Deductive reasoning
(C)
Scientific thinking
(D)
Inductive reasoning
Answer: (C)
60.
There are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of research and
Set-II indicates their procedural characteristics. Match the two sets and
choose your answer from the codes given below:
Set – I (Research method)
|
Set – II (Procedural Characteristics)
|
a.
Experimental method
|
i.
Interventions to ameliorate a given situation
|
b.
Expost facto method
|
ii.
Explaining patterns of behaviour in terms of meanings and their
representations which people share.
|
c.
Descriptive method
|
iii.
Manipulating an independent variable in controlled conditions and measuring
its effect on dependent variable.
|
d.
Symbolic interactionism
|
iv.
Depending on primary and secondary sources of data.
|
e.
Action research
|
v.
Obtaining information concerning the current status of phenomena.
|
vi.
Observing the effect on dependent variable and making probes into
factors/variables which explain it.
|
|
vii.
Exegetic analysis.
|
Codes:
a b c d e
(A) i iii iv v vii
(B) iii iv v vi vii
(C) i ii iii iv v
(D) iii vi v ii i
Answer: (D)
No comments:
Post a Comment