1.
Social, economic and political Justice is
(A)
an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India
(B)
guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(C)
a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into consideration while making
enactments
(D)
guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the High Courts and Supreme
Court
Answer: (A)
2. Without paying proper remuneration, labour
taken from the prisoners is ‘forced labour’ and violation of
(A) Art. 20 of the Constitution of India
(B)
Art. 21 of the Constitution of India
(C)
Art. 22 of the Constitution of India
(D)
Art. 23 of the Constitution of India
Answer: (D)
3.
Art. 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of
(A)
Citizens of India
(B)
Public Servants
(C)
All those who run public and private sectors
(D)
Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
Answer: (A)
4. The appropriate writ issued by
Supreme Court to quash the appointment of a person to a public office is
(A)
Certiorari
(B)
Mandamus
(C)
Prohibition
(D)
Quo-Warranto
Answer: (D)
5.
The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A)
Legislative power
(B)
Executive power
(C)
Quasi-judicial power
(D)
Judicial power
Answer: (A)
6.
The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
(A)
The President of India
(B)
The Parliament by resolution
(C)
The Parliament by Law
(D)
The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
Answer: (C)
7. At the first instance, the President can
issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period ofhttps://ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
(A) Fifteen days
(B)
Two months
(C)
One month
(D)
Six months
Answer: (B)
8.
Legal Theory is based on
(A)
a systematic study of positive laws
(B)
purely logical and empirical study
(C)
concepts like morality, justice and ethics
(D)
total exclusion of customary practices, morality and social vagaries
Answer: (C)
9.
Who separated jurisprudence from religion?
(A)
Kant
(B)
Hugo Grotius
(C)
Salmond
(D)
Jethro Brown
Answer: (B)
10.
Under how many categories the five theories of punishment can be divided?
(A)
2
(B)
4
(C)
5
(D)
3
Answer: (D)
11.
On which one of the following one can have corporeal ownership?
(A)
A right
(B)
Trademark
(C)
Movable property
(D)
A debt
Answer: (C)
12. “Sovereignty must be determinate, it
is essential, is indivisible and is unlimited and illimitable.” Who conceived
this about the sovereignty?
(A) Hobbes
(B)
Austin
(C)
Jean Bodin
(D)
Plato
Answer: (B)
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Statements, which are not partaking
of the character of ratio decidendi can be ignored while deciding the latter
case.
2. The ratio decidendi is not the reason
of decision.
3. Only that part of the judgment in an
earlier decision is binding which constitutes the ratio decidendi of that case.
4. A judicial decision has a binding force
for subsequent cases but the whole judgment is not binding, only a part of it
is biding.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
(A) 1, 3, 4
(B)
1, 2, 3
(C)
2, 3, 4
(D)
1, 2, 4
Answer: (A)
14. “Case law is gold in the mine, a few
grains of the precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while statute law
is coin of the realm ready for immediate use.” Who said these words?
(A)
Ihering
(B)
Austin
(C)
Kelson
(D)
Salmond
Answer: (D)
15. Which of the following statements
are true?
1. There is no rule to determine when
usage shall give rise to a custom.
2. Customary rules of International law
are diminishing and are being replaced by Treaties and Conventions.
3. Treaty contracts are not direct source
of International law.
4. International law is a positive morality.
Codes:
(A)
1, 2, 3 & 4
(B)
2, 3 & 4
(C)
1, 2 & 3
(D)
1 & 2
Answer: (C)
16. “The law of National or
International law may be defined as the body of rules and principles of actions
which are binding upon civilized states in their relations with one-another.”
This definition of International law was
given by
(A) J.L. Brierly
(B) Torsten Vitel
(C) Hackworth
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
17.
Match the following:
List
– I List – IIhttps://ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
a.
Recognition only and exclusively bestows a State with rights and duties
under International
Law.
i. De-facto recognition
b.
It is a first step towards final recognition. ii. De-Jure recognition
c.
It is a final recognition by a State. iii.
Declaratory Theory
d.
International personality of a State does not depend upon recognition. iv. Constitutive Theory
Codes:
a b c d
(A)
iv i ii iii
(B)
i ii iii iv
(C)
iv iii ii i
(D)
iii ii i iv
Answer: (A)
18.
The Charter of the United Nations can be amended by
(A) Five-third of the members of General
Assembly.
(B) The Security Council only
(C) Two-third of the members of the U.N.
including all permanent members of the Security Council after recommendations
by a two-thirds vote of a conference convened for the purpose, is received.
(D) Two-thirds of the members of the
Security Council including five permanent members.
Answer: (D)
19. In which of the following case, International
Court of Justice denied existence of customary rule?
(A)
North Sea Continental Shelf case.
(B)
The Lotus case.
(C)
Both of the above.
(D)
None of the above.
Answer: (C)
20. Which organ of the United Nations has
been given responsibility of promoting international co-operation in the
realisation of human rights?
(A) General Assembly
(B) Security Council
(C)
Both of the above
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (C)
21. In which of the following case the Supreme
Court held that even the wife of a void marriage is entitled to maintenance?
(A) Amarjeet Kaur Vs. Harbhajan Singh
(2003) 10 SCC 228.
(B)
Chand Dhawan Vs. Jawaharlal Dhawan (1993) 3 SCC 406.
(C)
Nirmala Devi Vs. Ram Dass (2001) 2 SCC. 4
(D)
Ramesh Chandra Vs. Veena Kausal AIR 1978 SC 1807
Answer: (B)
22.
In which of the following case, the court held that “Dower is a sale price of
woman”?
(A)
Maina Bibi case
(B)
Humara Bibi case
(C)
Subrunnisan case
(D)
Abdul Kadir case
Answer: (C)
23. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Find correct answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): “Option of Puberty” is an
easy process to repudiate the marriage under Hindu Law.
Reason (R): “Option of Puberty” is not
an easy process to repudiate the marriage under Muslim Law.
Codes:
(A)
(A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(B)
(A) and (R) both are correct.
(C)
(R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.
(D)
(A) and (R) both are incorrect.
Answer: (B)
24.
‘Tuhr’ means
(A)
Period of menstruation
(B)
Period of iddat
(C)
Period between menstruation
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (C)
25.
Match an item in List – I with correct answer in List – II using the codes
given below:
List
– I List
– II
a.
Gujarat Women’s Workers Association Vs. Union of India i. Dower
b.
Humara Bibi Vs. Zubaida Bibi ii.
Triple Divorce
c.
Anwari Begum Vs. Ziauddin iii.
Uniform Civil Code
d.
Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain Fissalli iv.
Maintenance
Codes:
a b c d
(A)
i iv ii iii
(B)
i ii iii iv
(C)
iii i ii iv
(D)
ii iii iv i
Answer: (C)
26.
Which form of talaq is revocable during period of ‘iddat’?
(A)
Talaq-i-Ahsan
(B)
Talaq-i-Hasan
(C)
Triple Talaq
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (A)
27.
Essentials of valid contract is
(A)
Meeting of minds
(B)
Meeting of parties
(C)
Meeting to discuss consideration
(D)
Meeting to discuss proposal and acceptance
Answer: (A)
28. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and
with help of codes given below, point out the correct explanation.
Assertion (A): A proposal, when accepted,
results in an agreement.
Reason (R): It is only after the
acceptance of the proposal that a contract between the two parties can arise.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is good explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
29. A minor is son of a beggar. He is
told by a law professor that he would not be liable for any goods he purchases.
The minor purchases a car and a bread loaf. Decide liability for payment of car
and bread loaf, using codes given below.
(A) The minor is liable to pay price of
car and bread loaf.
(B)
The minor is liable to pay reasonable compensation for car.
(C)
The minor is liable to pay price of bread.
(D)
The minor’s parent/guardian is liable to pay reasonable compensation for bread
loaf.
Answer: (D)
30. Arrange following concepts in sequence
in which they occur, using codes given below:
(i)
Offer
(ii)
Acceptance
(iii)
Damage
(iv)
Damages
Codes:
(A)
(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(B)
(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(C)
(i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer: (D)
31.
A contract may be vitiated by:
(i)
Fraud
(ii)
Mistake
(iii)
Frustration
(iv)
Undue influence
Find
correct answer, using codes:
Codes:
(A)
Only (i) is correct.
(B)
Only (i) and (ii) are correct.
(C)
Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D)
All are correct.
Answer: (D)
32.
Match items in Table A with items in Table B, using codes given below:
Table
– A Table
– B
a.
Promise i.
Section 56
b.
Frustration ii.
Section 2(d)
c.
Effect of refusal to accept offer of performance iii. Section 26
d.
Agreement in restraint of marriage iv.
Section 38
Codes:
i ii iii iv
(A)
b d a c
(B)
b a d c
(C)
a b d c
(D)
a b c d
Answer: (B)
33. P, owner of a car, asked his friend
Q to drive the car to Bombay where he would join him. As the car was about five
kilometres from Bombay, it hit a pedestrian R, on account of Q’s negligent
driving and injured him seriously. R sued P for damages. In this case:
(A) P is not liable.
(B)
The liability is solely of Q, as P was not accompanying him.
(C)
Since Q was driving P’s car was under his authority, P is liable.
(D)
P has the defence of inevitable accident.
Answer: (C)
34. “If it was lawful act, however ill
the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was
made by the court in one of the following cases:
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs.
Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C)
Christie Vs. Davey
(D)
Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Answer: (A)
35. P and Q, unknown to R, sought and got
a lift in R’s car, but on account of some mechanical defect in the car, of which
R was not aware, one of the front wheels of the car got detached and flew away,
and the car toppled. P and Q got serious injuries and later on, P died of his
injuries. Q and P’s next kin sued R for damages for negligent driving. What
defence R has?
(A)
Volenti non fit injuria
(B)
No responsibility towards P and Q who got a free lift
(C)
Inevitable accident
(D)
No defence
Answer: (C)
36.
In contributory negligence:
(A)
Both parties have contributed to the negligence equally.
(B)
Only one party is negligent and other has not taken due care.
(C)
One party is negligent resulting in injury while the other has taken due care.
(D)
When lack of care is equal on both sides.
Answer: (B)
37. P shoot at Q with the view to kill him.
When Q was being taken to hospital, a tree fell upon Q on the way and Q died in
the hospital a few days later. If it was proved that the falling of the tree caused
Q’s death, then
(A) P shall be responsible for the death
of Q.
(B)
Falling of tree has broken the chain of causation.
(C)
P is not liable to pay compensation to the dependents of Q.
(D)
P is responsible for the death of Q as Q’s death was the direct consequence of
P’s act.
Answer: (B)
38. Which one of the following has been laid
down as basis of responsibility by the rule in Rylands Vs. Fletcher?
(A)
Fault liability
(B)
Conditional liability
(C)
Strict liability
(D)
Insurance liabilityhttps://ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
Answer: (C)
39. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and
with the help of codes given below decide what offence if any was committed?
Assertion – I: A and Z agree to fence
with each other for a game. But because of foul, despite playing fairly, Z was injured.
Reason – II:
a.
No offence by virtue of consent between A and Z.
b.
Consent was obtained in good faith to gain prize, so no offence by A.
c.
A is criminally liable because he had knowledge about the likelihood of injury.
d.
Despite implied consent the intention was bad so A is liable.
Codes:
(A)
Reason ‘a’ is true when ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(B)
Reason ‘b’ is true when ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(C)
Reason ‘c’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’ are not asserted.
(D)
Reason ‘d’ is true when ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are not asserted.
Answer: (A)
40. Read Assertion – I and Reason – II and
with the help of codes given below select the correct answer:
Assertion – I: Common intention is asserted.
Reason – II:
a. A period which is anterior in time
among the offenders.
b.
From the facts of pre-arranged plan.
c.
From the act of conduct resulting from prior concert.
d.
From the totality of circumstances in which the act was committed.
Codes:
(A)
‘a’ is false because ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ do not support it.
(B)
‘d’ is true as ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ support it.
(C)
‘c’ is true irrespective of support of ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘d’.
(D)
‘b’ is true being supported by ‘a’, ‘c’ and ‘d’.
Answer: (B)
41. Select the statement that is most
suitable in law:
Culpable homicide is not murder when one
is deprived of the power of self-control resulting from:
(A)
Grave and sudden provocation
(B)
When death results by voluntary provocation.
(C)
Where death results in course of obedience of law.
(D)
When death results by mistake.
Answer: (A)
42. B a married man commits sex with C a
girl child of 16 years with her consent. What offence B has committed?
(A)
Adultery
(B)
Rape
(C)
No offence
(D)
Sexual outraging
Answer: (C)
43.
Fill in the blank:
Extortion
is ________, when it is committed under fear of instant hurt.
(A)
Theft
(B)
Attempt to steal property
(C)
Robbery
(D)
Wrongful restraint
Answer: (C)
44.
Find answer of the following question:
What
is the distinctive feature between false information and false charging?
(A)
Using lawful power to cause annoyance so as to institute a criminal proceeding.
(B)
To omit act which ought not to be done.
(C) A case for false information can
only be started by a complaint while false charge can be initiated by police.
(D)
There is no real distinction.
Answer: (B)
45.
Collective bargaining serves purposes:
(A)
Regulating wages and conditions of service
(B)
Regulating labour management relations.
(C)
Both (A) and (B).
(D)
None of the above.
Answer: (C)
46. In which country where statutes make
it obligatory to negotiate non-performance of the obligation invites penalty,
failure to carry obligation is treated as unfair labour practice?
(A)
U.K.
(B)
U.S.A.
(C)
France
(D)
India
Answer: (B)
47. In which of the following case, the Supreme
Court held that “there was no rule of thumb that in every case of termination
of workman’s service in violation of Section 25F of ID Act relief of
re-instatement should be granted?
(A) Talwara Co-operative Credit & Service
Society Ltd. Vs. Sushil Kumar (2009) I LLJ 326 S.C.
(B) Gujarat Steel Tubes Ltd. Vs. G.S.T.
Mazdoor Sabha (1980) I LLJ 137 (S.C.)
(C) Mavji C. Lakum Vs. Central Bank of
India (2008) III LLJ.1.(SC)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
48. The Registrar to Pensions Appeal Tribunal
was appointed as presiding officer of a Labour Court. The appointment is
(A)
Valid
(B)
Void
(C)
Void ab-initio
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (C)
49. Match List – I with List – II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
List
– I (Subject) List
– II (Provisions of ID Act)
a.
Tribunal i.
Section 2(ra)
b.
Wages ii.
Section 2(r)
c.
Unfair Labour Practices iii.
Section 2 (rb)
d.
Village Industries iv.
Section 2 (rr)
Codes:
a b c d
(A)
i iv iii ii
(B)
ii iii i iv
(C)
ii iv i iii
(D)
i iii ii iv
Answer: (C)
50. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R),
using codes given below, select correct answer:
Assertion (A): Strike is individual
stoppage of work to press management to get more pay.
Reason
(R): Individual has fundamental right of strike.
Codes:
(A)
(A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B)
(A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) and (R) are false.
(D)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (C)
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