1.
The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble to the Constitution of India by
(A)
First Amendment Act
(B)
Seventh Amendment Act
(C)
Forty-Second Amendment Act
(D)
Forty-Fourth Amendment Act
Answer: (C)
2.
Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of
(A)
Religion, race and caste only.
(B)
Religion, caste and sex only.
(C)
Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only.
(D)
Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Answer: (D)
3.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List
– I
List
- II
I.
Deletion of fundamental right to freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of
property. (a) Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment)
Act.
II.
Insertion of the word ‘integrity’ to the Preamble of the
Constitution. (b) Constitution (Forty-Fourth
Amendment) Act.
III.
Inclusion of right to education as fundamental right under Article 21A (c) Constitution (Eighty-sixth
Amendment) Act.
IV.
Insertion of Clause (5) in Article 15. (d)
Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act.
Codes:
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A)
(b) (a) (c) (d)
(B)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(C)
(b) (a) (d) (c)
(D)
(c) (b) (a) (d)
Answer: (A)
4. Which provision of the Constitution imposes
a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on
in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?
(A)
Article 352
(B)
Article 355
(C)
Article 356
(D)
Article 360
Answer: (B)
5. ‘Right to life’ under Article 21 of
the Constitution does not include ‘right to die’. This observation was made by
the Supreme Court in
(A)
P. Rathinam V. Union of India
(B)
Gian Kaur V. State of Punjab
(C)
Both (A) and (B) above.
(D)
None of the above.
Answer: (B)
6.
A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on the ground(s) of
(A)
Proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
(B)
Violation of the Constitution.
(C)
Both (A) and (B) above.
(D)
None of the above.
Answer: (A)
7. Parliament has power to legislate with
respect to a matter in the State List, provided it is in the
(A)
Public interest
(B)
National interest
(C)
Both (A) and (B) above
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (B)
8. Assertion (A): Ownership is not only
a juridical concept, but also a social concept and an instrument of social
policy.
Reason (R): The right of alienation is
not a necessary incident of ownership.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
9.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List
– I List
– II
(Theory)
(Subject)
(a)
Retributive Theory I.
Legal Right
(b)
Sociological Theory II.
Source of Law
(c)
Theory of Precedent III.
Punishment
(d)
Theory of Property IV.
Roscoe Pond
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
I IV
III II
(B)
III IV
II I
(C)
III II
I IV
(D)
IV III
I II
Answer: (B)
10.
Hypothesis of Grund norm was propounded by
(A)
Austin
(B)
Diguit
(C)
Hart
(D)
Kelson
Answer: (D)
11.
Immanuel Kant is the exponent of
(A)
Retributive theory of punishment.
(B)
Reformative theory of punishment.
(C)
Detterent theory of punishment.
(D)
Preventive theory of punishment.
Answer: (A)
12.
Who used the word ‘Sociology’ for the first time?
(A)
Auguste Comte
(B)
Herbert Spencer
(C)
Diguit
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (A)
13. Which one of the following
statements is true?
(A) Animus is necessary for the acquisition
or commencement of possession.
(B) Corpus is necessary for the acquisition
or commencement of possession.
(C) Animus and Corpus are not necessary
from the acquisition or commencement of possession.
(D) Animus and Corpus are necessary for
the acquisition or commencement of possession.
Answer: (D)
14.
Which of the following statements is true?
1.
An imperfect right may become perfect under certain circumstances.
2.
Imperfect right can become a valid defence.
3.
Law recognises an imperfect right but not to enforce it.
4.
Imperfect right can be reduced as a valid defence.
(A)
only 1, 2, 3
(B)
only 1, 4
(C)
only 2, 3, 4
(D)
only 1, 4, 3
Answer: (A)
15. Assertion (A): The United Nations cannot
perform peace keeping or peace making operations.
Reason (R): United Nations has no army,
navy or air force of its own.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
16. “The permanent members of Security Council
have special privilege in the voting procedure of the Security Council in as
much as the decisions of Security Council on nonprocedural matters shall be
made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of
the permanent members.”
Above statement is attributed to _____
of the Charter of the United Nations.
(A) Article 27, Para 3
(B) Article 27, Para 2
(C) Article 26
(D)
Article 28
Answer: (A)
17.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List
– I List
– II
(i)
Custom begins where usage ends. (a)
P.C. Corbett
(ii)
The Statute of International Court of Justice, Article 38, Para 1 is about. (b) J.G. Starke, Introduction to
International Law, P.40
(iii)
‘Custom’ should be replaced by word ‘evidence’. (c)
Treaty and Custom as sources of International Law.
(iv)
Law making treaties. (d)
Brierly, Law of Nations, P. 58
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(b) (c) (a) (d)
(B)
(c) (b) (a) (d)
(C)
(c) (b) (d) (a)
(D)
(a) (b) (d) (c)
Answer: (A)
18. Assertion (A): Arbitration is the process
of resolving disputes between States by means of an arbitral tribunal appointed
by the parties.
Reason (R): Disputes are arbitrary.
Codes:
(A)
(A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
(A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
19.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
To maintain international peace and security (i)
Article 1 of the UN Charter
(b)
Principles of UN (ii)
Article 2 of the UN Charter
(c)
Admission of new members to UN (iii)
Article 12 of the UN Charter
(d)
Limits on powers of General Assembly in respect of any dispute. (iv) Article 4 of the UN Charter
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(a) (b) (c) (d)https://ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
(B)
(b) (c) (d) (a)
(C)
(a) (b) (d) (c)
(D)
(c) (d) (b) (a)
Answer: (C)
20.
Stimson’s doctrine of Non-Recognition is related to
(A) Duty of non-recognition of some
territorial acquisitions brought about in accordance with international law.
(B) Duty of non-recognition of some
territorial acquisitions brought about in breach of international law.
(C) Duty of non-recognition of all territorial
acquisitions brought about in breach of international law.
(D) Duty of non-recognition of all territorial
acquisitions brought about according to international law.
Answer: (C)
21.
Prohibited degree and Spinda relationship are
(A)
Mutually exclusive
(B)
Dependent on each other
(C)
May overlap each other
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (C)
22. In which of the following case, the High
Court held that “the presence of Qazi” is not necessary at the time of marriage
ceremony under the Muslim Law?
(A) Qazi Mohd. Najmuddin Hussain V.
State of A.P.
(B) Mohd. Yunus V. Malooki
(C) Shamim Ara V. State of U.P.
(D)
Bai Tahira Vs. Ali Hussain
Answer: (B)
23.
Assertion (A): Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is dissoluble.
Reason
(R): Marriage is a sacrosanct union.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
24. Which of the following is not condition
for a marriage under Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
(A)
Neither should have a living spouse.
(B)
If the bride is below 18, the consent of her guardian has been obtained.
(C)
They are not within prohibited degrees relationship.
(D)
Neither should be subject to recurrent attack of insanity.
Answer: (B)
25.
Sources of Muslim Law are
(a)
The Koran
(b)
The Ismaa
(c)
The Hadis
(d)
The Kiyas
Indicate
their correct sequence.
(A)
(a), (b), (d) and (c)
(B)
(a), (c), (b) and (d)
(C)
(a), (d), (c) and (b)
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (A)
26. According to Muslim Law, marriage is
not solemnised of only for the sexual enjoyment between two spouses, it is an
act of Ibadat.
(A) True
(B)
False
(C)
Partly true, partly false
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (A)
27.
X invites his friend Y on dinner but later on declined to arrange it on specified
day.
(A)
X is liable for breach of contract.
(B)
X is liable, if Y goes to the house of X and returns withoutdinner.
(C)
X is liable for breach of contract, if Y gets dinner in hotel.
(D)
X is not liable for breach of contract.
Answer: (D)
28. Match List-I with List-II and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List
– I List
– II
(a)
Breach of contract 1.
Impossible to perform
(b)
Revocation of offer 2.
Same thing in the same sense
(c)
Consent 3.
Compensation
(d)
Frustration 4.
Lapse of stipulated time
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
1 3
4 2
(B)
2 4
1 3
(C)
3 1
2 4
(D)
3 4
2 1
Answer: (D)
29. Which one of the following
provisions of the Indian Contract Act deals with the reciprocal promise to do
things legal and also other things illegal?
(A) Section 56
(B)
Section 57
(C)
Section 58
(D)
Section 17
Answer: (B)
30.
Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act declares the agreement void on the ground
of
(A)
Absolute restraint only
(B)
Partial restraint only
(C)
Both absolute or partial restraint
(D)
None of the above
Answer: (C)
31. No customer in a thousand ever read the
conditions. If he had stopped to do, he would have missed the train or the boat.
This observation was made by
(A) Anson
(B)
Donaldson
(C)
Lord Denning
(D)
Pearson
Answer: (C)
32.
When consent is given due to mistake, an agreement will be
(A)
Voidable
(B)
Legal
(C)
Illegal
(D)
Void
Answer: (D)
33.
A person is responsible in law of tort for
(A)
all the consequences of his act.
(B)
all the consequences which are not remote.
(C)
all the consequences which directly flow from his act.
(D)
all the consequences which are reasonably foreseeable.
Answer: (D)
34. There is a school by the side of the
road. Three children of nursery class stray away from the school on to the road.
A truck driver, who was driving the truck at a normal speed, notices the
children. While trying to save the children, the truck hits a shop and an injury
is caused to one person. Which of the following assertions correctly represent
the law?
(A) The school management is liable as
they are negligent in not keeping the children within the school premises.
(B) The truck driver is liable as he did
not take proper care.
(C) The children are liable as they contributed
to the accident.
(D) None is liable as it is a pure accident.
Answer: (A)
35.
Match List-I with List-II. Use the code below to select the right answer.
List
– I List
– II
a.
Donoghue V. Stevenson 1.
Remoteness of damages
b.
In re Polemis 2.
Absolute liability
c.
M.C. Mehta V. Union of India 3.
Neighbour principle
d.
Lloyd V. Grace Smith & Co. 4.
Vicarious liability
Codes:
a b c d
(A)
2 3 4 1
(B)
2 3 1 4
(C)
3 1 4 2
(D)
3 1 2 4
Answer: (D)
36. When an injury is caused by the act of
an enterprise engaged in a hazardous or inherently dangerous activity, the enterprise
is absolutely liable for the injury because
1. it has not taken reasonable care.
2.
the enterprise owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community to
ensure that no harm results from the activity.
3.
it is considered as a part of the social cost for carrying on the hazardous or
inherently dangerous activity.
4.
it is difficult to prove lack of care on the part of enterprise.
Select
the right code:
(A)
1 and 2 are correct.
(B)
1 and 4 are correct.
(C)
1 and 3 are correct.
(D)
2 and 3 are correct.
Answer: (D)
37. D employs a driver Z to drive his
car. D specifically instructs the driver not to drive fast and in no case
exceed the speed of 50 kms per hour. Z exceeds the limit and causes the accident
in which P is injured. In an action against D for damages
(A) D is not vicariously liable for the
act of the driver because the driver acted against the express instructions of
his master.
(B) D is not liable as the act of the driver
was not done during the course of employment.
(C) D is liable as the driver was doing
an authorised act in an unauthorised manner.
(D) D is not liable as there was contract
for service between D and the driver.
Answer: (C)
38. Due to the negligence of the owners
of a well, it was filled with poisonous gases and two of the employees were trapped
inside the well. B, an expert in disaster management in such situation, was
called to rescue the two employees. B decided to go inside the well with the help
of a rope in order to save the employees trapped in the well. He was warned of
the risk involved. Despite all this B went inside the well and was overcome by
the gases. He was taken to hospital where he died. B’s wife sued the owners of
the well for compensation.
(A) Owners are not liable because maxim
volunti non fit injuria applies.
(B) Owners are not liable because B was an
expert and master of his trade.
(C) Owners are liable because the act of
B was the natural and probable consequence of owner’s negligent act.
(D) Owners are liable because B died while
being engaged by them.
Answer: (C)
39. Malignantly and maliciously are synonyms.
There is only one provision of Indian Penal Code which covers both the aspect.
Provide the correct answer:
(A) Section 153
(B)
Section 270
(C)
Section 219
(D)
Section 220
Answer: (B)
40. The Indian Penal Code no more denote
a positive evil intent for fixing liability, however there are certain type of
act which signifies want of care as culpable resulting out of breach of duty.
What it is known as?
(A) Rashly
(B)
Negligentlyhttps://ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
(C)
Both (A) and (B)
(D)
None of them
Answer: (C)
41. Assertion (A): Common intention implies
a pre-arranged plan, prior meeting of minds and prior consultation between all
the persons committing the crime.
Reason (R): The law makes no distinction
between the persons or the part played by them in doing the criminal act.
Codes:
(A)
(A) is true and (R) is false.
(B)
(A) and (R) are both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is false and (R) is true.
(D)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is most nearest explanation of (A).
Answer: (D)
42. Assertion (A): Culpable homicide becomes
murder when the act causes death and is done with the intention of causing
death.
Reason (R): One of the conditions to be
satisfied for treating it murder provide the injury intended to be inflicted is
sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death.
Codes:
(A)
(A) is true, but (R) is not the reason.
(B)
(A) and (R) are both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is false and (R) is true.
(D)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reasonable explanation of (A).
Answer: (D)
43. An agreement of which either the object
or the means employed are illegal, but does not itself constitute an offence is
known as ______.
(A) Intimidation
(B) Conspiracy
(C)
Abetment
(D)
All of them
Answer: (C)
44. The act of causing death to a person
who has committed or attempted to commit house breaking by night is known as
______.
(A) Marginal excess of right to private
defence.
(B) Purported exercise of right of self
defence.
(C)
Murder
(D)
No detached objectivity would be possible to weigh the culpability.
Answer: (B)
45. A Seven Judges Bench of the Supreme
Court considered the scope of Industry and laid down a Triple Test Formula in
one of the following cases:
(A) State of Bombay Vs Bombay Hospital
Mazdoor Sabha, AIR 1960 SC.
(B) Bangalore Water Supply Vs. A. Rajappa,
AIR 1978 SC.
(C) D.N. Bannerji Vs. P.R. Mukherjee,
AIR 1953 SC.
(D) University of Delhi Vs. Ramnath, AIR
1963 SC.
Answer: (B)
46. Out of the following one of the
modes is not a dispute settlement under the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947.
(A)
Conciliation
(B)
Adjudication
(C)
Alternate Dispute Resolution
(D)
Arbitration
Answer: (C)
47. The qualifications of a person who cannot
be appointed as presiding officer of the Labour Court.
(A) He is or has been a Judge of a High
Court.
(B) He has for a period of not less than
three years, been a District Judge or an Additional District Judge.
(C) He has been Civil Judge for 2 years.
(D) He has held any Judicial Office in
India for not less than seven years.
Answer: (C)
48.
The Registrar cannot withdraw or cancel registration of a Trade Union if
(A)
the application of the Trade Union is in the proper form on verification.
(B)
the certificate of registration has been obtained by fraud or mistake.
(C)
the Trade Union has ceased to exist.
(D) the Trade Union has wilfully after a
notice from the Registrar contravened the Provisions of the Act.
Answer: (A)
49. Any person who has attained the following
age may be a member of a registered Trade Union.
(A)
18 years
(B)
17 years
(C)
16 years
(D)
15 years
Answer: (D)
50. The workmen are not entitled to lay off
compensation in one of the following cases:
(A) An industrial establishment in which
less than fifty workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(B) An industrial establishment in which
less than one hundred workmen on an average per working day have been employed.
(C) An industrial establishment in which
less than two hundred and fifty workmen on an average per working day have been
employed.
(D) An industrial establishment in which
less than five hundred workmen on an average per working day have been
employed.
Answer: (A)
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