1.
The emergence of New Public Administration is associated with
(A)
American Society of Public Administration
(B)
Comparative Administration Group
(C)
Indian Institute of Public Administration
(D)
Minnow brook Conference
Answers: (D)
2.
Factors responsible for the evolution of the study of Comparative Public Administration
is/are
(A)
Inadequacy of Traditional Approach
(B)
Rise of New Techniques and concepts of Research
(C)
Desire to develop Comparative Public Administration as an independent subject
(D)
All the above
Answers: (D)
3.
A.V. Dicey has given classical exposition of the Rule of Law in his book
(A)
Introduction to the study of the Law of the Constitution
(B)
Comparative study of the Constitution
(C)
Justice and Administrative Law
(D)
Public Administration: A Comparative Perspective
Answers: (A)
4.
Who among the following used the expression ‘cow sociologists’ for Hawthorne
researchers?
(A)
Herbert Simon
(B)
Peter Drucker
(C)
United Auto Workers in the USA
(D)
Comparative Administration Group
Answers: (C)
5.
Which one of the following is not correct according to Weber’s Charismatic
Authority?
(A)
It is based on the exceptional qualities of the leader.
(B)
Administration under this authority is stable.
(C)
There is no hierarchical assignment of tasks under this authority.
(D)
On the death of a leader under this authority, the question of succession
arises.
Answers: (B)
6.
A prismatic society is characterised by
(A)
A high degree of homogeneity
(B)
A high degree of heterogeneity
(C)
A high degree of flexibility
(D)
None of the above
Answers: (B)
7.
Which one of the following reasons is not attributed to the emergence of
Development Administration?
(A)
Abundance of research funding with the CAG
(B)
Financial and technical assistance under the USAID programme
(C)
Abundance of knowledge and managerial skills in developing countries
(D)
Desire for administrative development in developing countries
Answers: (C)
8.
The USA introduced the performance budgeting after the II World War on the
recommendations of
(A)
Grace Commission
(B)
Hoover Commission
(C)
Lee Commission
(D)
Islington Commission
Answers: (B)
9.
What is not true about the Constituent Assembly?
(A)
It was based on the recommendations of Cabinet Mission.
(B)
It was constituted by indirect elections.
(C)
At least one seat was given to each Indian State.
(D)
Seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities in
proportion to their population.
Answers: (C)
10.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?https://ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
(A)
Cabinet – Head of the Secretary Union Cabinet
(B)
Chief – Head of State Secretary Secretariat
(C)
Secretary – Administrative Head of a Ministry
(D)
Chief – Head of the Minister State Government
Answers: (A)
11.
Which of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
(A)
Inter-State Council
(B)
Finance Commission
(C)
Union Public Service Commission
(D)
National Development Council
Answers: (D)
12.
Which of the following is not correct about the Budget in India?
(A)
The President of India has to put it before both the Houses every financial
year.
(B)
It is a statement of estimated receipts and expenditures of the Government of
India.
(C)
The Constitution refers to it as annual financial statement.
(D) The Indian Constitution clearly mentioned the word Budget.
(D) The Indian Constitution clearly mentioned the word Budget.
Answers: (D)
13.
Which one of the following machineries was created in Britain in 1967 to
examine complaints of corruption?
(A)
Whitley Council
(B)
Ombudsman
(C)
Parliamentary Commissioner
(D)
Procurator-General
Answers: (C)
14.
The President may remove the Chairman or member of the Public Service
Commission without making a reference to the Supreme Court. Which is not true
in this context?
(A)
The Chairman or Member is adjudged as insolvent.
(B)
The Chairman or Member engages in some paid employment outside while in office.
(C)
The Chairman or Member is guilty of misbehaviour.
(D)
The Chairman or Member is unfit to continue in Office due to infirmity of mind
or body.
Answers: (C)
15.
Civil Services preliminary examination (objective type) for the selection of
candidates for the Civil Services (Main) was recommended by
(A)
Hota Committee
(B)
Kothari Committee
(C)
Satish Chandra Committee
(D)
Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Committee
Answers: (B)
16.
Which one among the following is not the primary source of data collection?
(A)
Interview
(B)
Observation
(C)
Questionnaire
(D)
Historical books
Answers: (D)
17.
Smt. Durgabai Deshmukh was the first Chairperson of
(A)
Central Social Welfare Board
(B)
National Commission for Backward Classes
(C)
National Commission for Minorities
(D)
National Commission for Women
Answers: (A)
18.
Which of the following Committee was constituted on the recommendations of the
Growmore Food Enquiry Committee?
(A)
Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(B)
Ashok Mehta Committee
(C)
L.M. Singhvi Committee
(D)
Rural-Urban Enquiry Committee
Answers: (A)
19.
Article 243-B of Indian Constitution provides for
(A)
Constitution of Panchayats
(B)
Grama Sabha
(C)
Election to the Panchayats
(D)
Reservation of Seats in Panchayats
Answers: (A)
20.
The Panchayats are described as “Little Republics” by
(A)
Metcalfe
(B)
Lord Ripon
(C)
Lord Hob House
(D)
Mahatma Gandhi
Answers: (A)
21.
Assertion (A): The tasks of Public Institutions are decided by the Politicians
and implemented by Administrators.
Reason
(R): Public Institutions perform better when they are decentralized.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
22.
Assertion (A): The Riggsian model of prismatic society is primarily an
explanation of the ecology of Thailand.
Reason
(R): Riggs’ two-dimensional approach means that the prismatic model would
include any society that is differentiated but malintegrated.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
23.
Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the Prime
Minister in consultation with the Speaker by warrant under his hand and seal.
Reason
(R): The duties, powers and conditions of service of the CAG are laid down in
the CAG’s Act, 1971.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (D)
24.
Assertion (A): For Simon, administrative man looks for a course of action that
is best from those available to him.
Reason
(R): For Simon, administrative man is motivated by satisfactory outcome.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (D)
25.
Assertion (A): To provide avenues of public employment to suitable educated
Indians, a separate civil service called the statutory civil service was
created in 1879.
Reason
(R): All India Services maintain the integrity of the Nation.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
26.
Assertion (A): The UPSC is the designated recruitment agency for the All India
Services.
Reason
(R): The All India Services provide a valuable link between the Union and the
State Governments.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
27.
Assertion (A): Planning, Programming, Budgeting was an attempt to integrate
budgeting with overall planning for the Government as a whole.
Reason
(R): It combines long range planning with results oriented programmes and
evaluation.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
28.
Assertion (A): The Public Accounts Committee should satisfy itself that the
money shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for
and applicable to the service of purpose to which they have been charged.
Reason
(R): The Public Accounts Committee suggests alternative policies in order to
bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (C)
29.
Assertion (A): Judicial Activism is an effective mean of judicial control over
Public Administration.
Reason
(R): The PILs have enhanced the judicial control over public administration.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (A)
30.
Assertion (A): The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is the watchdog of
public finance.
Reason
(R): The CAG is a constitutional body.
Codes:
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answers: (B)
31.
What is the correct sequence regarding the evolution of the discipline of Public
Administration? Use the codes given below:
(i)
Crisis of identity
(ii)
The era of Politics – Administration dichotomy
(iii)
Principles of Administration
(iv)
Focus on inter-disciplinary studies
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)
(ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C)
(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(D)
(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Answers: (B)
32.
Arrange the following in chronological order of their origin. Use the codes
given below:
(i)
1st Administrative Reforms Commission
(ii)
3rd Minnowbrook Conference
(iii)
K. Santhanam Committee
(iv)
Sarkaria Commission
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)
(ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(C)
(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(D)
(iii) (i), (ii), (iv)
Answers: (C)
33.
Which one of the following is a correct sequence in the ascending order of
Maslow’s needs’ hierarchy?
(i)
Esteem needs
(ii)
Affiliation needs
(iii)
Self-actualization needs
(v)
Safety needs
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B)
(iv), (v), (ii), (i), (iii)
(C)
(ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D)
(iii), (iv), (ii), (i), (v)
Answers: (B)
34.
Which is the correct sequence in descending order of following organization?
Give correct answer from codes given below:
(i)
Cabinet Secretariat
(ii)
Department
(iii)
Ministry
(iv)
Directorate
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)
(i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C)
(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(D)
(i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
Answers: (C)
35.
Arrange the following in their chronological order. Use the codes given below:
(i)
Paul H. Appleby Report
(ii)
Gopalaswamy Ayyangar Report
(iii)
N.N. Vohra Report
(iv)
Raja J. Chelliah Report
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)
(ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(C)
(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(D)
(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Answers: (C)
36.
What is the correct sequence of execution of Budget? Answer by using the codes
given below:
(i)
Disbursement of Funds
(ii)
Custody of Public Funds
(iii)
Assessment and Collection
(iv)
Accounting and Audit
Codes:
(A)
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(B)
(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C)
(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(D)
(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
Answers: (C)
37.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
L.D. White (i)
Principles of Public Administration
(b)
W.F. Willoughby (ii) Papers
on the Science of Administration
(c)
L. Gulick and L. Urwick (iii) The Study
of Public Administration
(d)
Dwight Waldo (iv)
Introduction to the Study of Public Administration
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answers: (B)
38.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes
given below:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
Ecological Approach (i)
Chris Argyris
(b)
Behavioural Approach (ii)
W. Niskanen
(c)
Public Choice Approach (iii)
F.W. Riggs
(d)
Systems Approach (iv)
David Easton
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B)
(iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(C)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(D)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answers: (C)
39.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
Aitchison Commission (i)
1935
(b)
Federal Public Service Commission (ii)
1924
(c)
Islington Commission (iii)
1886
(d)
Lee Commission (iv)
1912
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(B)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(D)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answers: (A)
40.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
Parliamentary Commissioner (i)
France
(b)
Administrative Courts (ii)
Russia
(c)
Ombudsman (iii)
Britain
(d)
Procurator System (iv)
USA
(v) Sweden
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B)
(v) (i) (iii) (ii)
(C)
(iii) (i) (v) (ii)
(D)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
Answers: (C)
41.
Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (i) Bangaluru
(b)
National Police Academy (ii)
New Delhi
(c)
Indian Audit and Accounts Service School (iii)
Shimla
(d)
Indian Institute of Public Administration (iv)
Hyderabad
(v) Mussoorie
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(v) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B)
(v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D)
(ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answers: (B)
42.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List
– I List – II
(a)
Y. Dror (i) Mixed
Scanning Approach
(b)
A. Etzioni (ii) Normative Optimum
Model
(c)
David Truman (iii) Governmental
Process (Group Theory)
(d)
V. Ostrom (iv) Public Choice Theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B)
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answers: (B)
43.
Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
List
– I List – II
(a)
Observation (i) Facilitates insight
into the respondents.
(b)
Interview (ii) Data
collected are more reliable.
(c)
Schedule (iii) The
researcher fills up the information collected from respondents himself.
(d)
Questionnaire (iv) The respondent
has to himself fill the entries.
(v) The time and
resources can be saved by selecting a smaller segment of respondents.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(i) (ii) (iii) (v)
(B)
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(C)
(v) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answers: (B)
44.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:
List
– I List
– II
(a)
F.W. Riggs (i)
Development Administration
(b)
Lucian Pye (ii) Administrative
Reform
(c)
Gerald Caiden (iii)
Frontiers of Development Administration
(d)
O.P. Dwivedi (iv)
Aspects of Political Development
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B)
(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answers: (C)
45.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using the codes:
List
– I
List – II
(a)
Mandamus (i) Writ will not be
issued by a High Court to another High Court.
(b)
Quo Warranto (ii) Writ will not be
issued against the Governor of a State for the performance of his official
duties.
(c)
Prohibition (iii) Writ enables
the court to examine the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
(d)
Certiorari (iv) Writ cannot
be issued against private persons or associations.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(B)
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(C)
(i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(D)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answers: (D)
46.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
List
– I List – II
(a)
B.R.G.F. (i) A scheme
concerned with infra-structural development in 6 key areas.
(b)
MNREGA (ii) A
scheme to bridge the gap of requirements and availability of funds for
development in rural areas.
(c)
Bharat Nirman (iii) A scheme for
universalization of elementary education
(d)
R.M.S.A. (iv) A scheme for
assured employment of at least 100 days
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C)
(iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D)
(ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answers: (D)
Read the passage below and answer the questions
that follow based on your understanding of the passage: (47 – 50)
The main function of civil service is formulation
and implementation of public policy. The civil service engages itself in collection
of relevant data and information in order to identify the crux of the problem. The
civil service, especially at the secretariat level, is considered as the ‘think
tank’ of the Government and it helps in making sound and effective policies.
The civil servants also administer the law of the land. They are to implement and
execute the law of the land faithfully and impartially. In finance, the civil
servants not only prepare the budget but also influence the taxation and
expenditure policy of the government to a great extent. Today they perform
quasi-legislative and quasi-judicial functions also. Public relations have become
an important part of their official duties. Therefore, they are expected to
explain the Government policy to the people and to win their co-operation in
its implementation. In a country like India, civil servants are entrusted the
responsibility of implementing various programmes of rural development and
welfare measures.
Recent decades have seen a shift towards
a reduced role for the Government in all countries. Thatcherism in UK and Reaganomics
in USA tried to pull out the State from the morass of over-involvement. The decline
of Communism in Eastern Europe has furthered the trend towards economic liberalization
and disinvestment in public sector enterprises. India could not have remained
unaffected by these global trends.
47.
Which one of the following is not the area of Civil Servants?
(A)
Collection of Data
(B)
Identification of problem
(C)
Think-tank of the Government
(D)
Enactment of Law
48.
Civil Servants are not discharging the following:
(A)
Execution of Law of the land
(B)
Preparation of the budget
(C)
Contacting the people and explaining the programmes of Government
(D)
Judicial activities
Answers: (D)
49.
Which one of the following factors has not contributed to the rise of globalization?
(A)
Thatcherism in UK
(B)
Reaganomics in USA
(C)
Decline of Communism in Eastern Europe
(D)
Growth of Social Legislation
Answers: (D)
50.
Which one of the following areas is not the concern of the Government Policy in
recent trends?
(A)
Disinvestment in Public Enterprises
(B)
Increasing the efficiency of Civil Servants
(C)
Enlarging the role of Government
(D)
Deregulation of Monopolies
Answers: (C)
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