1.
Which amongst the following is not a water bird sanctuary?
(A)
Nal Sarovar near Ahmedabad
(B)
Point Callimere in Tamil Nadu
(C)
Bharatpur in Rajasthan
(D)
Karnala near Mumbai
Answer: (D)
2.
Which city in India is famous for the Dussehra Festival?
(A)
Mumbai
(B)
Chennai
(C)
Mysore
(D)
New Delhi
Answer: (C)
3.
This consists of two lists of the gardens and their locations. The candidate
has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List-I
List-II
(Garden)
(Location)
(i)
Jubilee Park (1) Chandigarh
(ii)
Shalimar Bagh (2) Kodaikanal
(iii)
Bryant Park (3) Jamshedpur
(iv)
Rock Garden (4) Srinagar
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(2) (3) (4) (1)
(B)
(4) (1) (2) (3)
(C)
(3) (4) (2) (1)
(D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer: (C)
4.
Assertion (A): Outbound Tourism is double than inbound tourism in India.
Reason
(R): The competitive pricing strategies of tour operators make the foreign tours
attractive and affordable.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
5.
This consists of two lists of the Milestones and the development of Tourism.
The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other
List-I
List-II
(Milestones)
(Development of
Tourism)
(i)
A.D.1275 (1)
Grand tour era made travel a status symbol for wealthy individuals seeking to
experience cultures of the civilized world.
(ii)
14th to 16th centuries (2)
Marco Polo’s travels throughout the far East began to heighten interest in
travel and trade
(iii)
A.D. 1613 to 1785 (3) Industrial
revolution gives rise to technological advances making travel and trade more
efficient
(iv)
18th to 19th centuries (4)
Trade routes developed as commercial activities grow and merchants ventured into
new territorieswww.ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(3) (1) (2) (4)
(B)
(1) (3) (2) (4)
(C)
(2) (4) (1) (3)
(D)
(4) (3) (1) (2)
Answer: (C)
6.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A)
Namakarana is a simple ritual for naming the child
(B)
Upanayana is a ceremony of the first tonsure to the child.
(C)
Chaula is the thread-giving ceremony to the child.
(D)
Annaprasana is the ceremony to uphold vows.
Answer: (A)
7.
This consists of two lists of names of Sanctuaries and States, the candidate has
to match an item in List – I with an item in the other.
List-I
List-II
(Name
of Sanctuary) (Name of
State)
(i)
Radhanagari (1)
Maharashtra
(ii)
Jaladpara (2)
Assam
(iii)
Betla (3)
Jharkhand
(iv)
Manas (4)
West Bengal
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(1) (4) (3) (2)
(B)
(4) (2) (1) (3)
(C)
(3) (2) (1) (4)
(D)
(4) (1) (3) (2)
Answer: (A)
8.
Arrange the following monuments in order in which they appeared.
Use
the code given below:
I.
Charminar
II.
Agra Fort
III
St George Fort
IV.
Golden Temple
Codes:
(A)
IV, III, II, I
(B)
II, I, III, IV
(C)
III, IV, I, II
(D)
I, II, III, IV
Answer: (B)
9.
Which one of the following statement is not correct?
(A)
The temple of Mahadeo is situated in Kashmir
(B)
The Jwala Devi temple is in Himachal Pradesh
(C)
The Chitrakut temple is in Madhya Pradesh
(D)
The Rameshvara temple is on an island between India and Sri Lanka.
Answer: (A)
10.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A)
Ganesh Chaturthi is a very popular festival in Andhra Pradesh
(B)
Durga Puja is specially celebrated in Tamil Nadu
(C)
Onam is the biggest festival of Kerala.
(D)
Pongal festival is celebrated in Karnataka.
Answer: (C)
11.
This consists of two lists temples and locations and the candidate has to match
an item in one list with an item in the other
List-I
List-II
(Name
of Temples) (Name of Places)
(i)
Sri Krishna (1) Dwarka
(ii)
Sri Jagannath (2)
Udupi
(iii)
Shri Vitthala (3) Puri
(iv)
Ranchhor Dasji (4)
Pandharpur
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(2) (3) (1) (4)
(B)
(2) (3) (4) (1)
(C)
(2) (4) (1) (3)
(D)
(2) (1) (4) (3)
Answer: (B)
12.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(A)
Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at Sarnath
(B)
Buddha was born in Kusinagara
(C)
Buddha attainted enlightment in Bodhgaya
(D)
Buddha delivered his first sermon in Lubinivana
Answer: (C)
13.
Assertion (A): No permanent structure can be erected upto 100 metres from the
high tide line.
Reason
(R): The Coastal Zone Regulation Act (CRZ) 2011 is responsible for conservation
of coastal area.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
14.
For practicising ‘Aero Sports’ at a place, there is need of
I.
Ascending Column of air
II.
Low Air Pressure
III.
Wind Direction
IV.
High Air Pressure
(A)
I, II, III are correct
(B)
II & III are correct
(C)
I & II are correct
(D)
All are correct
Answer: (A)
15.
Which islands are opened for foreign tourists among the Lakshadweep island
group?
I.
Bangaram
II.
Kadmat
III.
Minicoy
IV.
Andrott
(A)
I, II, III are correct
(B)
II, III are correct
(C)
I, II are correct
(D)
All are correct
Answer: (C)
16.
This consists of two lists of National Parks / Wild Life Sanctuaries and nearest
towns. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the
other.
List-I
List-II
(National
Parks / Wild life Sanctuaries) (Nearest
Town)
(i)
Jim Corbett (1)
Mysore
(ii)
Rajaji (2)
Jaipur
(iii)
Sariska (3)
Ram Nagar
(iv)
Kabini (4)
Haridwar
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(3) (2) (4) (1)
(B)
(3) (4) (2) (1)
(C)
(2) (3) (4) (2)
(D)
(3) (4) (2) (1)
Answer: (B)
17.
Assertion (A): All Indian Airports have Red and Green Channel.
Reason
(R): Tourists with valuable articles should go through Red channel.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are correct.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
18.
Calculate the flying time if a flight leaves Chennai (+05.30 hrs) at 8.55 hrs
on Monday and arrives Hong Kong (+08.00 hrs) at 16.55 hrs on Monday.
(A)
5.30 hrs
(B)
4.30 hrs
(C)
6.30 hrs
(D)
7.30 hrs
Answer: (A)
19.
If a person purchases a ticket in Frankfurt and starts his journey from Frankfurt
International Airport, it is a transaction
(A)
SITI
(B)
SOTI
(C)
SITO
(D)
SOTO
Answer: (A)
20.
A person with Person of Indian Origin (PIO) card gets visa in India for
(A)
Six months
(B)
Nine months
(C)
Two years
(D)
Five years
Answer: (D)
21.
EMS is applied in Air ticketing when
(A)
MPM > TPM before allowance
(B)
MPM > TPM after allowance
(C)
MPM < TPM before allowance
(D)
MPM < TPM after allowance
Answer: (D)
22.
Which place is/are a part of itinerary of ‘Golden Chariot’ train?
I.
Bangalore
II.
Mysore
III.
Goa
IV.
Mangalore
(A)
I, II & III are correct
(B)
II & III are correct
(C)
I & II are correct
(D)
All are correct
Answer: (A)
23.
Which one of the following statement is not correctly matched?
(A)
A tourist visa is valid for a period of 180 days.
(B)
A business visa is valid for a period of 5 years.
(C)
A transit visa is valid for a period of 30 days.
(D)
Yoga visa is valid upto 5 years.
Answer: (C)
24.
Which place is not a part of Buddhist Pilgrimage?
(A)
Piparhawa
(B)
Kundangram
(C)
Vaishali
(D)
Shravasti
Answer: (B)
25.
Which group of sequential itinerary is/are correct?
I.
Texas -> Dublin -> Milan -> Riyadh
II.
Damascus -> Karachi -> Dhaka -> Yangon
III.
New York -> Dubai -> Madrid -> Karachi
IV.
Istanbul -> Rome -> London -> New York
(A)
I, III & IV are correct
(B)
II, III & IV are correct
(C)
I & II are correct
(D)
All are correct
Answer: (C)
26.
This consists of two sets, of types of journey and itinerary. The candidate has
to match an item in one list with an item in the other:
List-I
List-II
(Types
of Journey) (Itinerary)
(i)
One way (1)
KHI -> ROM -> Surface -> MAD -> KHI
(ii)
Circular Trip (2) BOM
-> LON -> NYC -> TYO -> BOM
(iii)
Round the world trip (3) DEL ->
CCU -> VNS -> DEL
(iv)
Open Jaw (4) MAA ->
BLR -> BOM
Code:
(i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(4) (3) (1) (2)
(B)
(4) (3) (2) (1)
(C)
(1) (2) (4) (3)
(D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer: (B)
27.
This consists of two lists-types of community participation and their respective
approaches. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the
other
List-I
List-II
(Community
participation) (Approaches)
(i)
Spontaneous (1)
Informing
(ii)
Induced (2)
Top down
(iii)
Coercive (3)
Bottom up
(iv)
Functional (4) Passive
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(3) (2) (4) (1)
(B)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(C)
(2) (3) (4) (1)
(D)
(4) (1) (2) (3)
Answer: (A)
28.
This consists of two lists of declaration/convention and their significances
and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other.
List-I
List-II
(Declaration
/ Convention) (Significances)
(i)
Kyoto protocol (1)
Promotion of tourism other than economic activity
(ii)
Qubec declaration (2)
Biological diversity and sustainable tourism
(iii)
Manila declaration (3) Climate
change and greenhouse gas emission
(iv)
Berlin declaration (4)
Eco-tourism and sustainable tourism
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
(B)
(1) (3) (2) (4)
(C)
(2) (1) (3) (4)
(D)
(4) (2) (3) (1)
Answer: (A)
29.
This consists of two lists of tourism system and their significances
List-I
List-II
(Contributor)
(Model)
(i)
Leiper (1)
Economical components of tourism
(ii)
Gunn (2)
Psychological factors
(iii)
Mill and Morrison (3)
Geographical components of tourism
(iv)
Murphy (4)
External environment model
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(1) (3) (2) (4)
(B)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
(C)
(2) (1) (3) (4)
(D)
(4) (2) (3) (1)
Answer: (B)
30.
The 2002 National Tourism Policy of India was formulated with the representation
from
I.
National and regional trade associations.
II.
Noted social activists and environmentalists.
III.
Senior officers from various ministries of Government of India.
IV.
Members of the Community around the destinations.
(A)
I and III are correct.
(B)
II and III are correct.
(C)
I, II and III are correct.
(D)
I and II are correct.
Answer: (C)
31.
American Plan, European plan, Modified American Plan and Continental Plan are
the
(A)
package developed by tour operators.
(B)
Room tariff package developed by hoteliers.
(C)
Food and transport package developed by travel agents.
(D)
Travel package developed by the airlines.
Answer: (B)
32.
“CVGR” is a terminology used in accommodation sector to indicate
(A)
Cumulative Variable Gross Ratio
(B)
Company Variable Group Ratio
(C)
Company Volume Group Register
(D)
Company Volume Group Reservation
Answer: (D)
33.
Assertion (A): Creating sub brands technique that was developed in the hotel
groups / chains for attracting various tourist segments.
Reason
(R): “Fortune” and “Vivanta” are the budget category hotels of Welcome group
and Taj group of hotels.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
34.
Assertion (A): Cocktails and mock tails are included in the bar menu to create
variety and choices in the bar menu.
Reason
(R): Cocktails and mock tails are included in the bar menu for alcoholic and non-alcoholic
guests.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
35.
Classification of hotels are the carried out by
(A)
Department of Tourism, Government of India
(B)
Federation of Hotel and Restaurant Association of India.
(C)
India Tourism Development Corporation
(D)
State Department of Tourism
Answer: (A)
36.
The ‘European Plan’ in hotels includes
(A)
Room tariff which excludes meals
(B)
Room tariff which includes meals
(C)
Room tariff which includes breakfast
(D)
Room tariff which includes lunch or dinner
Answer: (C)
37.
This consists of two lists of holidays and package concept. The candidate has
to match an item in one list with an item in the other
List-I
List-II
(i)
Welcome break (1) Time
share concept
(ii)
Mahindra holidays (2) Accommodation
package
(iii)
Palace on wheels (3) Cox and
Kings
(iv)
DuniyaDekho (4) RTDC
& Indian railway
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(2) (1) (4) (3)
(B)
(1) (3) (2) (4)
(C)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
(D)
(4) (2) (3) (1)
Answer: (A)
38.
Identify the correct match:
List-I
List-II
(i)
ITC (1) International Air Transport
Association
(ii)
IATA (2) Travel Agent Association
of India
(iii)
IATO (3) Indian Association of Tour
Operators
(iv)
TAAI (4) Inclusive Tours by Charter
Code:
(i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(1) (3) (2) (4)
(B)
(4) (1) (3) (2)
(C)
(2) (4) (1) (3)
(D)
(3) (2) (4) (1)
Answer: (B)
39.
“Aspect Impact Analysis” is conducted in hotels to
(A)
Understand the damages caused by pollution
(B)
Understand the further impact that may cause to the environment by pollution
(C)
Understand the precaution taken to prevent the environment pollution
(D)
Understand the impact of pollution on hotel employees
Answer: (C)
40.
Identify an International franchise hotel chain
(A)
Taj Group
(B)
ITC Welcome Group
(C)
Marriots
(D)
Lemon tree
Answer: (C)
41.
“ASDL” (Assymetric Digital Subscriber Lines) will enable the
(A)
E-commerce without communication
(B)
Resort accommodations, security scanning, passport controls much easier
(C)
E-Commerce in real time with interaction there by avoiding the need for
travelling
(D)
Provide information about destination facilities, infrastructure and transport options.
Answer: (C)
42.
“Table d’ hot” is a term related to
(A)
Varied buffet services
(B)
Fixed number of items in a menu
(C)
Choice of items in a menu
(D)
Options for guest to prepare their own menu
Answer: (B)
43.
This consists of two lists of validity and their basic characteristics
List-I
List-II
(Validity)
(Basic Characteristics)
(i)
Construct (1) whether no other factors
could explain the research findings
(ii)
Content (2) Assessment of how well
the measurement conforms to the theoretical model
(iii)
Criterion (3) Checking of the
performance of a measurement tool or indicator
(iv)
Internal (4) Assessment of how well
the measurement tool measures the different dimensions of a concept
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(1) (3) (2) (4)
(B)
(2) (4) (3) (1)
(C)
(3) (2) (1) (4)
(D)
(4) (1) (2) (3)
Answer: (B)
44.
This consists of two lists of measurement scales and basic characteristics
List-I
List-II
(Measurement
Scale) (Basic Characteristics)
(i)
Nominal (1) Zero point is
fixed
(ii)
Ordinal (2) Zero point is
arbitrary
(iii)
Interval (3) The relative
positions of the object
(iv)
Ratio (4)
Classification of object
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(B)
(2) (4) (1) (3)
(C)
(4) (3) (2) (1)
(D)
(3) (1) (4) (2)
Answer: (C)
45.
Assertion (A): Factor analysis is an advanced statical tool employed for
reducing the variables into a manageable stage, so that data inference can be
simplified.
Reason
(R): A class of procedures primarily used for data reduction and summarization.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
46.
Stratified sampling is selected when
(A)
Population is not partitioned in to sub-population or segment.
(B)
It should be mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive.
(C)
Every population element should not be assigned one random number.
(D)
Population elements should be omitted.
Answer: (B)
47.
Category variables are the combination of
I.
Dichotomous
II.
Constant
III.
Discreet
IV.
Polytomous
(A)
I, II and III are correct
(B)
I and II are correct
(C)
I and III are correct
(D)
I, II and IV are correct
Answer: (D)
48.
t-test is used when one of the following conditions is applied:
(A)
The sample size is not small
(B)
The mean is not known
(C)
Population variance is unknown
(D)
Population is not normally distributed
Answer: (C)
49.
Which one of the following explains the meaning of “epistemology”?
(A)
A way of finding the reality in the research.
(B)
A way of identifying the alternative courses of actions in the research.
(C)
A way of knowing the best route of acquiring knowledge.
(D)
A means of differentiating right and wrong.
Answer: (C)
50.
Pilot study is carried out with two important criteria
(A)
Response error and standard error
(B)
Open end questions and large-scale survey
(C)
Large sample size and closed end questions
(D)
Structural interview and probabilistic sampling method
Answer: (B)
51.
Which one is an example of non-marketing trade barrier in tourism marketing?
(A)
Cultural barriers
(B)
Socio-political barriers
(C)
Environmental barriers
(D)
Technological barriers
Answer: (B)
52.
Which of the segmentation method is based on behavioural correlate?
(A)
Demographical Segmentation
(B)
Psychographical segmentation
(C)
Benefit sought segmentation
(D)
Usage segmentation
Answer: (D)
53.
Incredible India campaign is an advertising campaign where the copy of the
theme is based on
(A)
Testimonial evidence
(B)
Rationality of offer
(C)
Social campaign
(D)
Anti-fear campaign
Answer: (A)
54.
Marketing information system consists of
I.
Analytical Marketing System
II.
Internal-record System
III.
Marketing Research System
IV.
Marketing Intelligence System
(A)
I and II
(B)
II and III
(C)
I, II and IV
(D)
II and IV
Answer: (D)
55.
‘Make my trip.com’ is an example of
(A)
Infomediary
(B)
Intermediary
(C)
Direct marketing company
(D)
Aggregator
Answer: (D)
56.
In tourism marketing “Destination facilities” consider to be an element of
(A)
Core benefit
(B)
Generic product
(C)
Expected product
(D)
Augmented product
Answer: (B)
57.
Assertion (A): Tourism Distribution Channels have profound effects on the
competitiveness andprofitability of tourismorganisations.
Reason
(R): Distribution is becoming the most critical factors for the competitiveness
of tourism organisations.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
58.
A manager that creates an organisation’s goals, overall strategy and operating
policies would be performing what level of management
(A)
Top level
(B)
Middle level
(C)
First level
(D)
Low level
Answer: (A)
59.
Which one of the following is not one of the four categories of resources used
by an organisation?
(A)
Information resources
(B)
Human resources
(C)
Physical resources
(D)
Intellectual resources
Answer: (D)
60.
Which one of the following is not one of the three interpersonal roles inherent
in a Manager’s Job?
(A)
Figure head
(B)
Spokesperson
(C)
Liason
(D)
Leader
Answer: (B)
61.
The implementation of the principles of sustainable tourism stipulated by the
UNWTO are the responsibilities of
(A)
The Central Government
(B)
The District Administration
(C)
The State Government
(D)
The Non-governmental Organisation
Answer: (B)
62.
The Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Shrine is one of the well-known “Shakti” Sites in
Jammu Kashmir and is managed
(A)
Jointly by State and Central Government
(B)
By State Government and the Shrine Board
(C)
By Autonomous Board
(D)
By District Administration
Answer: (C)
63.
The gap in the national tourism policy can be minimized if
I.
Evaluation of short comings of past policies is carried out
II.
Feasibility study with focus on positive and negative impacts of policy
implementations.
III.
Centralized and controlled approaches are eliminated.
IV.
Views of Political Leaders are considered for implementation
(A)
I, II and III are correct
(B)
I and II are correct
(C)
II and III are correct
(D)
I and III are correct
Answer: (A)
64.
Indicate which of the following item(s) are liabilities:
I.
Interest owned by a hotel on loan.
II.
Interest owed to the hotel forlate payments.
III.
Account receivable
IV.
A building owned by the hotel.
(A)
I
(B)
II and III
(C)
I and III
(D)
I, II and IV
Answer: (C)
65.
Which of the following is not a section of an operating statement?
(A)
Revenue
(B)
Expenses
(C)
Profit
(D)
Net worth
Answer: (D)
66.
Total liabilities are subtracted from total assets to compute the net worth of the hotel, also called as
(A)
Equity
(B)
Revenue
(C)
Profit
(D)
Loss
Answer: (A)
67.
A measurement of the amount of the money that a business has on hand at any
point of time
(A)
Cash Flow
(B)
Long-term debt
(C)
Fixed Asset
(D)
Funds Flow
Answer: (A)
68.
To accurately monitor the hotel’s financial performance the statement normally
prepared at the end of the year is known as
(A)
Operating Statementwww.ugcnet-info.blogspot.com
(B)
Financial Statement
(C)
Cash Flow Statement
(D)
Funds Flow Statement
Answer: (B)
69.
Which of the following is not a control technique?
(A)
Zero based budgeting
(B)
Breakeven analysis
(C)
PERT
(D)
JIT
Answer: (D)
70.
Grapevine in an organisation is likely to develop in
(A)
A formal group
(B)
The top brass
(C)
an informal group
(D)
The external environment
Answer: (C)
Read
the passage below and answer the questions that follow. Answer the questions
from (71-75).
The Buddha is considered as a divine being
and as a consequence of this, everything connected with him is considered to be
sacred. The places connected with the life and legend of Buddha acquired
unqualified glory and sanctity. Eight places have been identified as the ‘Eight
great spots’.
The first four places are related to the
important historical events in Buddha’s life and the remaining four are the
places where it is believed that Buddha had performed miracles. These eight
places have become sacred places of Buddhist pilgrimage.
71.
This consists of two lists of places and events. The candidate has to match an
item in one list with an item in the other.
List-I
List-II
(Places)
(Events)
(i)
Lumbini (1) Where Buddha attained
enlightenment
(ii)
Gaya (2) Where Buddha
was born
(iii)
Sarnath (3) Where Buddha attained
Nirvana
(iv)
Kusinagar (4)
Where Buddha delivered his first sermon
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(2) (1) (3) (4)
(B)
(2) (3) (4) (1)
(C)
(2) (1) (4) (3)
(D)
(2) (4) (1) (3)
Answer: (C)
72.
Which one of the following is a World Heritage Site?
(A)
Sarnath
(B)
Bodhgaya
(C)
Sravasti
(D)
Vaishali
Answer: (B)
73.
Assertion (A): The National Emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion
Capital of Ashoka the Emperor.
Reason
(R): The Emblem was adopted on 15th August 1947.
(A)
Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B)
Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation.
(C)
(A) is true but (R) is false.
(D)
(A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
74.
Identify the four places where Buddha had performed miracles
(A)
Sravasti, Rajgir, Sankasya, Vaishali
(B)
Sarnath, Sankasya, Vaishali, Sanchi
(C)
Kusinagar, Rajgir, Vaishali, Gaya
(D)
Sravasti, Kusinagar, Rajgir, Sanchi
Answer: (A)
75.
This consists of two lists, the first being the forms of four Noble Truths given
by Buddha. The second explains the core meaning. The candidate has to match an
item in one list with one item in the other.
List-I
List-II
(Noble
Truth) (Core meaning)
(i)
First (1) Cessation
of sorrow of pain
(ii)
Second (2) Every sorrow
has a cause
(iii)
Third (3) Existence of
Suffering
(iv)
Fourth (4) Removal of
sorrow in all its forms
Code:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A)
(3) (1) (2) (4)
(B)
(3) (4) (2) (1)
(C)
(3) (2) (1) (4)
(D)
(3) (4) (1) (2)
Answer: (C)
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